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answer this:
Assume a 8-year, $5,000 par value bond paying a 10% coupon annually and a YTM of 12%.  The prime rate is 7%.  There will be a charge of $60 in fees and will have a 14% compensating balance imposed.  The reserve requirement is 11%.  The Treasury Note is yielding 1.25%.  If the loan defaults, the bank will lose 65% of its money.  Assume there is a concern of an increase in yields of 4%.  The ROE is 4.5%.

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This loan is combined in a portfolio with a second loan that contains a face value of $3,000.  This second loan has a Moody’s KMV Return of 3.5% and Moody’s KMV Risk of 12%.  The correlation of the two loans is -0.65 and the bank is willing to take a maximum of a 20% loss.  The national average allocation for the first loan is 35% and the national average allocation for the second loan is 65%.

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What is duration, modified duration and dollar duration?
What is the New Price predicted by the duration model?
What is the convexity factor?
What is the New Price predicted by the convexity model?
What is the Actual Price given the change in yields?
What is the error for the duration model?  What is the error for the convexity model?
What is the gross return?
What is the implied probability of default using the term structure of credit risk model?
What is the Risk Adjusted Return on Capital (RAROC)? Should the loan be approved according to this model?
What is the Moodys KMV Model Return?  What is the Moodys KMV Model Risk?
What is the Expected Return?
What is the Portfolio Return?
What is the Portfolio Risk?
What is the Loan Volume Based Model of this allocation compared to the national average?
What is the concentration limit for this portfolio?  Does the current allocation follow this limit?

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